Wednesday, August 17, 2016

Does laicization remove a priest's powers?

Does laicization remove a priest's powers?

Full Question

I've heard that when a man leaves the priesthood, he undergoes a process called "laicization," which takes away his priestly powers, making him a regular layman. Is this correct?

Answer

It is only partly correct. Laicization is a process which takes from a priest or other cleric the licit use of his powers, rights, and authority. Laicization occurs automatically when a priest, deacon, or monk marries or joins the military without permission. Major clerics (priests and deacons) are directly laicized through their superiors by the penalty of degradation. The Holy See also has the privilege of laicizing major clerics.

Laicized clerics are forbidden to wear clerical dress or to perform ceremonies or to administer the sacraments ordinary to their former offices. Priests who are laicized are required to continue practicing celibacy, although dispensations from this discipline are frequently given. Otherwise, laicization renders a cleric for ecclesiastical purposes the equivalent of a layman.

The supernatural mark of holy orders and the powers connected with the sacrament (especially for the priest) remain even after laicization, although they cannot be used licitly. A laicized priest has the power to confect the Eucharist. Although to the world he may live as a layman, in a sense "once a priest, always a priest."

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

How can I show that Jehovah's Witnesses are wrong about birthday celebrations?

How can I show that Jehovah's Witnesses are wrong about birthday celebrations?

Full Question

My wife is studying with Jehovah's Witnesses, and they have convinced her that celebrating birthdays is a pagan custom and not something Christians should do. She refuses to allow our children to celebrate their birthdays. What should I do?

Answer

Birthday celebrations are mentioned only a few times in Scripture, and nowhere are they condemned. Witnesses wrongly assume that celebrating birthdays is evil because the only two explicit biblical mentions of birthday celebrations are those in honor of a pagan, Pharaoh (Gn 40:20-22), and a wicked man, Herod Antipas (Mk 6:21; cf. Mt 14:1-12). To compound the issue, King Herod's birthday festivities were the occasion of sexual immorality involving the daughter of his brother's wife, Herodias, and led to the murder of John the Baptist. Witnesses wrongly reason that, because these biblical occurrences depict the celebration of the birth of wicked men, celebrating anyone's birthday is in itself sinful. You can demonstrate that this does not logically follow by showing that the Bible says that the birthday of John the Baptist would be the cause of "joy and gladness, and many will rejoice at his birth for he will be great in the sight of the Lord" (Lk 1:14-15). While this passage does not explicitly mention an annual celebration of John the Baptist's birth, it certainly allows for such an interpretation and at the very least demonstrates that it is good to celebrate the birth of a holy person.

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

Should I read the novel "Joshua" by Fr. Joseph Girzone?

Should I read the novel "Joshua" by Fr. Joseph Girzone?

Full Question

Our parish is abuzz over the book Joshua by Fr. Joseph Girzone. Is this a good book to read?

Answer

We won't make a judgment on taste, but if it's orthodoxy you're after, you may want to stay away from Joshua. The book tells of a man by that name who begins to preach in an anonymous American town. The implication is that Joshua is Jesus reincarnate on earth.

This Joshua gathers a following of people attracted to his goodness and gentle spirituality. In a book written by a priest, you'd think Joshua (Jesus) would send these followers straight up the steps of the nearest Catholic Church, but he doesn't. He visits a Catholic church (and is treated rather unkindly by the priest), as well as a synagogue (where he impresses the congregation with his knowledge of Hebrew) and a variety of Protestant assemblies, blessing them all and giving special favor to none.

Joshua preaches a suspiciously simple gospel, one that emphasizes social justice and inner spirituality over ceremony and dogma. He speaks disparagingly of "religions" which "bind" people in fear with laws and doctrines instead of teaching the simple message of God's love. Sound familiar? Finally, in a most extraordinary incident, he is called to Rome to answer for his actions to the all-seeing, all-knowing authority: the pope, who, we are supposed to believe, consider this small-time American holy man a threat to his dominion.

This is nonsense, of course, but it makes sense when you realize that Fr. Girzone is a well-known dissenter from the "institutional" Church, and in Joshua (and its sequels) has found a vessel to spread his heterodox views.

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

What organizations exist to protect the civil and ecclesial rights of Catholics?

What organizations exist to protect the civil and ecclesial rights of Catholics?

Full Question

Secularists have the American Civil Liberties Union, and Protestants have the Rutherford Foundation, but are there any Catholic legal defense organizations to protect the legal and civil rights of Catholics? Are there any organizations to make sure they get their ecclesial rights within the Church?

Answer

Yes to both questions. For cases where Catholics are being denied their rights in the secular world, contact the Catholic League for Religious and Civil Rights, 450 Seventh Ave., New York, NY 10123, phone (212) 371-3191. This organization exists to help defend the rights of Catholics in American courts.

For cases where Catholics are being denied their ecclesial rights within the Church, contact the St. Joseph Foundation, 11107 Wurzbach Ste. 601B, San Antonio, Texas 78230-2570, phone (210) 697-0717.

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

What is the JEDP theory, and does it disprove Genesis?

What is the JEDP theory, and does it disprove Genesis?

Full Question

We sometimes hear people say that we cannot trust the accuracy of the book of Genesis because of the "JEDP" theory. What is that, and why is it supposed to disprove Genesis?

Answer

The JEDP theory claims that the Pentateuch, the five books of Moses, were compiled from four sources or traditions, which are respectively known as the Jahwist, Elohist, Priestly, and Deuteronomist sources (hence the abbreviation JEDP). This theory is also known under other names, such as the Wellhausen hypothesis (named after Julius Wellhausen, who pioneered the theory).

This theory states that a final editor or compositor (or a number of them) drew upon these different traditions in assembling the Pentateuch and that one can identify the source by noting certain clues in the text. For example, the Jahwist source is supposed to favor the divine name Yahweh "(I AM"), while the Elohist source is supposed to favor the term Elohim or El ("God").

Three of the sources, J, E, and P, are thought to have gone into the writing of Genesis. The reason many think this undermines the historicity of Genesis is that all of these sources are considered inaccurate, written centuries after the time of Moses.

In fact, the conclusion that they are inaccurate does not follow from the idea that they are from a late date. Under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit even late sources are infallible, just like early sources. The conclusion that Moses did not edit or oversee the editing of the Genesis is also not required. Even if J, E, D, and P were real sources, Moses could have been the one who wove them together. There are other problems with the JEDP theory. For example, many passages in Genesis contain references to God using both divine names ("the Lord God" or "Yahweh Elohim").

For an excellent discussion and critique of the JEDP theory, see Before Abraham Was by Isaac Kikawada and Arthur Quinn.

At Catholic Answers, we prefer the GELND theory, which claims that the Pentateuch is a compilation of five sources: Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy.

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

What can you tell me about the "Poem of the Man-God"?

What can you tell me about the "Poem of the Man-God"?

Full Question

What can you tell me about the book Poem of the Man-God? Has it been condemned by the Church?

Answer

Poem of the Man-God, a multi-volume work of prose written by Maria Valtorta, purports to be a factual account of the life of Christ as revealed by Jesus himself. Interest in the work grew after one of the alleged seers from Medjugorje claimed that the Virgin Mary okayed the reading of the book. The history of the book leads one to question the credibility of this claim. In 1960 The Poem of the Man-God, then a four-volume set, was placed on the Index of Forbidden Books. The official Vatican newspaper, L'Osservatore Romano, summarized the findings of the Holy Office in an article titled "A Life of Jesus Badly Fictionalized." When the publishers tried to get around this condemnation the next year by publishing a new ten-volume set, the work again was condemned in the Vatican paper which called it "a mountain of childishness, of fantasies, and of historical and exegetical falsehoods, diluted in a subtly sensual atmosphere."

In correspondence with Catholic Answers, Apostolic Nuncio Archbishop Agostino Cacciavillan, pointed out that, although the Index was abolished in 1965, it still retains its moral force, and faithful Catholics should heed the reservations and cautions expressed in it.

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

Why didn't Jesus' preaching and miracles convince more Jews to follow him?

Why didn't Jesus' preaching and miracles convince more Jews to follow him?

Full Question

Why didn't Jesus' preaching and miracles convince more Jews to follow him? It seems that he should have been more successful in influencing them.

Answer

It is a mistake to believe that Jesus wasn't successful in influencing people to believe in him. The Pharisees and chief priests who had him arrested and killed testify otherwise. When Jesus entered triumphantly into Jerusalem, the Pharisees exclaimed, "Look, the whole world has gone after him" (Jn 12:19). When the chief priests and scribes were plotting a way to arrest and kill Jesus, they said, "Not during the festival [Passover], for fear that there may be a riot among the people" (Mk 14:2). The plotting and arrest were done at night for fear that the people would revolt. He was seized in Jerusalem where he had come for only a few short visits; most of his preaching and miracles were done in Galilee. The original Jewish converts lost their Jewish identity once they intermingled with Gentile Christians. This, along with the fact that modern Jews are descendants of those who rejected Jesus, gives us the mistaken notion that few were influenced by him 2,000 years ago.

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

Were Catholic doctrines such as purgatory and papal primacy really universal in the early Church?

Were Catholic doctrines such as purgatory and papal primacy really universal in the early Church?

Full Question

Why does the Catholic Church claim (from Vatican I) that its doctrines can be verified by the "universal and unanimous consent of the Fathers" when it's so easy to prove that the Fathers were not unanimous in their teachings? Catholic doctrines such as purgatory, baptismal regeneration, and papal primacy were not "universally" held in the early Church.

Answer

While the assembled bishops at Vatican I did invoke the authority of the Fathers on the issue of papal primacy (cf. Sess. 4, ch. 4), they did not say that only those doctrines that enjoyed universal and unanimous consent of the Fathers were to be believed. In fact, Vatican I says nothing even remotely like that. It appeals to the testimony of the Fathers only briefly, after having first given a detailed elucidation from Scripture of the doctrines of papal primacy and infallibility.

It's a matter of historical record that the Church Fathers disagreed on various issues. Some, such as Origen and Tertullian (who are not officially titled "Fathers," although they are ranked among the major theological writers of the early Church), even lapsed into heresy. The point is not that every Father agreed with every other Father on every issue--that would constitute an absolute mathematical unanimity, something which the Catholic Church does not claim. Rather, there was a moral unanimity of teaching among the Fathers. This means that doctrines such as the ones listed in your question were universally held and taught by the Catholic Church. Some Fathers wrote on these issues, to greater and lesser extents. Some never mentioned certain doctrines at all (at least not in their writings which have survived), and others can be seen to have held erroneous opinions about other doctrines.

The Catholic Church never has claimed that every Church Father at all times believed and taught every single Catholic doctrine in the sense that the Church teaches it. It is the Church as a single organic entity, the Body of Christ (cf. 1 Cor 12:12-27) that always and everywhere has faithfully guarded and proclaimed the apostolic deposit of faith--not necessarily its individual members. This is true today. The Catholic Church universally teaches, as it always has, the Real Presence of Jesus in the Eucharist. But there are droves of "Catholics" who, as a result of spiritual apathy or being poorly catechized, do not believe this doctrine as taught by the Church. This in no way contradicts the truth that the Church "universally" holds this doctrine.

Purgatory, baptismal regeneration, and papal primacy were universally taught in the early Church, as can be demonstrated by a study of patristic writings. (For starters, consider the many quotations from the Fathers on these issues in "The Fathers Know Best" department of This Rock). The Fathers appealed not only to Scripture as their doctrinal authority, but also to the Fathers who came before them, to show the constant tradition of Catholic teaching on a given subject.

Around 150 Irenaeus appealed to the traditional teachings of the Fathers (Against Heresies 2:2-4) to show that Catholic teaching could be established from both Scripture and Tradition. Tertullian appealed to the moral unanimity of the Fathers who preceded him to show the universality of Catholic doctrine:

[Is it plausible to imagine that the Holy Spirit] neglected his office, permitting the churches [dioceses] for a time to understand differently, and to believe differently, what he himself was preaching by the apostles; is it likely that so many churches, and they so great, should have gone astray into one and the same faith? Error of doctrine in the churches must necessarily have produced various issues [beliefs]. When, however, that which is deposited among many is found to be one and the same, it is not the result of error, but of tradition. (Praescripciones 28)

Basil of Caesarea appealed to the testimony of the Fathers:

Now I accept no newer creed written for me by other men, nor do I venture to propound the outcome of my own intelligence, lest I make the words of true religion merely human words; but [only] what I have been taught by the holy Fathers, that I announce to all who question me. In my Church the creed written by the holy Fathers in synod at Nicaea is in use. (Letter 140:2)

Vincent of Lerins summarized the issue:

Therefore, as soon as the corruption of each mischievous error begins to break forth, and to defend itself by filching certain passages of Scripture, and expounding them fraudulently and deceitfully, forthwith the opinions of the ancients in the interpretation of the canon are to be collected, whereby the novelty . . . may be condemned. But the opinions of those Fathers only are to be used for comparison who, living and teaching, holily, wisely, and with constancy, in the Catholic faith and communion, were counted worthy either to die in the faith of Christ or to suffer death happily for Christ. Whom yet we are to believe on this condition, that only is to be accounted indubitable, certain, established, which either all or the most part have supported and confirmed manifestly, frequently, persistently, in one and the same sense, forming, as it were, a consentient council of doctors, all receiving, holding, handing on the same doctrine. But whatsoever a teacher holds, be he a bishop, be he a confessor, be he a martyr, let that be regarded as a private fancy of his own, and [let it] be separated from the authority common, public, general persuasion. (Commonitoria 28:72-23 [A.D. 434]) 

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

Why won't Jehovah's Witnesses accept blood transfusions, even when their lives are in jeopardy?

Why won't Jehovah's Witnesses accept blood transfusions, even when their lives are in jeopardy?

Answer

Mainly because their founder, Charles Taze Russell, scrambled to come up with a unique set of doctrines that would stand out from the pack. He didn't seem to care which biblical teachings he embraced and which he rejected, so long as the resulting doctrinal pastiche would be exotic. Rejecting blood transfusions on "biblical" grounds is one of the WTS' truly odd tenets. Witnesses cite two verses as bases for their position:

You shall eat no blood whatever, whether of fowl or of animal, in any of your dwellings. Whoever eats any blood, that person shall be cut off from his people (Lv 7:26-27).
For the life of every creature is the blood of it; therefore I have said to the people of Israel, You shall not eat the blood of any creature, for the life of every creature is its blood; whoever eats it shall be cut off (Lv 17:14).

Besides being inconsistent by retaining this particular Old Covenant prohibition while ignoring others, such as circumcision (cf. Gn 17:2-14) and kosher dietary laws (cf. Dt 14:3-21), Witnesses misunderstand what these passages are talking about. In both Leviticus 7 and 17 the prohibition is against the eating of blood, not reception of blood through transfusions (a medical procedure which was developed only within the last century). Witnesses ignore the fact that in a single passage in Leviticus the Lord prohibits the eating of both blood and fat: "It shall be a perpetual statute throughout your generations, in all your dwelling places, that you eat neither fat nor blood" (3:17). Yet the Watchtower does not condemn the eating of fat, and no Jehovah's Witness would feel any moral compunction against eating a bag of fried pork rinds or enjoying a nice, fatty cut of prime rib. This is a good example of the Watchtower's selective "theology."

Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

Does Isaiah 64:6 state that good works are useless?

Does Isaiah 64:6 state that good works are useless?

Full Question

A Fundamentalist I know has been bashing my Catholic faith by quoting Isaiah 64:6, where the Bible says, "our acts of righteousness are as filthy rags." He says this proves humans have no good works before God. What should I say in return?

Answer

He misunderstands the verse he is quoting. It does not say that all acts of righteousness are as filthy rags to God, but that those being rendered to him in Isaiah's day were.

In context the passage says:

Since ancient times no one has heard, no ear has perceived, no eye has seen any God besides you, who acts on behalf of those who wait for him. You come to the help of those who gladly do right, who remember your ways. But when we continued to sin against them, you were angry. How then can we be saved? All of us have become like one who is unclean, and all our righteous acts are like filthy rags; we all shrivel up like a leaf, and like the wind our sins sweep us away. Your sacred cities have become a desert; even Zion is a desert, Jerusalem a desolation. Our holy and glorious Temple, where our fathers praised you, has been burned with fire, and all that we treasured lies in ruins. (Is 64:4-6, 10-11, NIV)

This pertains to a particular historical situation, not to a general condition. The passage appeals to a time when Israelites once had a right relationship with God, when God helped them against their enemies because they waited on him, gladly did right, and remembered his ways.

When they sin against him and did not repent and return to their former state, he abandoned them to the will of their enemies, so that even Jerusalem and its Temple were destroyed. (Isaiah speaks of this prophetically, before it happened.)

It was during that period of continued sin, leading up to the destruction of Jerusalem in 586 B.C., that they had "become like one who is unclean"--they hadn't always been like that. In this state, even the nation's acts of righteousness appeared like filthy rags to God, so he wouldn't help them: "When you spread out your hands in prayer, I will hide my eyes from you; even if you offer many prayers, I will not listen. Your hands are full of blood; wash and make yourselves clean. Take your evil deeds out of my sight! Stop doing wrong, learn to do right!" (Is 1:15-17).

Protestants are often confused about the role Catholics believe good works play in salvation, so you should clear this up for the Fundamentalist you know. You should explain to him that we do not perform good works in order to enter a state of justification. The Council of Trent stated that "nothing which precedes justification, whether faith or works, merits the grace of justification" (Decree on Justification 8).

In fact, it is impossible for an unjustified person to do supernaturally good works, since these are based on the virtue of charity (supernatural love), which an unjustified person does not have. Good works therefore flow from our reception of justification; they do not cause us to enter a state of justification. Good works increase the righteousness we are given at justification and please God, who promises to give us supernatural rewards on the last day, including the gift of eternal life (Rom 2:6-7, Gal 6:6-10).


Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff

23-DEC-'24, Monday of the Fourth Week of Advent

Monday of the Fourth Week of Advent Lectionary: 199 Reading 1 Malachi 3:1-4, 23-24 Thus says the Lord GOD: Lo, I am sending my messenger to ...